Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 00:10
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do North Indians, living in Bangalore, not bother to learn Kannada?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's your take on Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind? How has it affected you?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Have you ever witnessed a remote beach show where hundreds of turtles crawling to the water?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.